1 Sep 2003 10:45
RE: AW: AW: SIPIT Interop problem with ;user=phone
<hisham.khartabil <at> nokia.com>
2003-09-01 08:45:29 GMT
2003-09-01 08:45:29 GMT
So, I'll ask the question again, this time for real:
Under the informative text in 2806bis labeled "A Use of "tel" URIs with SIP (Informative)", it says:
"
2. The outbound proxy does not use the same phone
context, but can route to a proxy that handles this
phone context. This routing can be done via a lookup
table or the domain name of the phone context might be
set up to reflect the SIP domain name of a suitable
proxy. For example, a proxy may always route calls
with tel URIs like
tel:1234;phone-context=munich.example.com
to the SIP proxy located at munich.example.com."
So, how does the proxy route this message to munich.example.com? Or how does it discover the proxy at munich.example.com?
The reason I'm asking this again is due to my proposal in earlier emails to use a tel URI for dial strings and
sip URI for pure sip users.
Is there something wrong with mandating that if an entity placed a tel-URI in a sip request along with a
phone-context carrying a domain name, then that domain name must be the address of a sip proxy?
/Hisham
> -----Original Message-----
> From: ext Cullen Jennings [mailto:fluffy <at> cisco.com]
> Sent: Saturday, August 30, 2003 2:48 AM
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