I read Hb 2:6 and see that the last word in the verse is (B+Y+. I know the word TXTYT, bottom (Ez 31:14) meaning *lowest, the lowest place*. I'm wondering if (B+Y+ is a mistake for (B+yT... If not, may we speak of the suffix -Y+ (yod-teth)? Or should we rather think of a yod plus a doubling of the last root consonant of the basic )B+ (ayin, beth, teth)? Kind regards from -- -- Pere Porta (Barcelona, Catalonia, Northeastern Spain)
>What value is there in a little Modern Hebrew? I guess I should explain > by what I mean by a little. OK. I would agree that what is described is good, but I would go all the way. Finish off the modern Hebrew, don't stop halfway, for the fluency reasons mentioned. As mentioned, those who have do not regret it for BH. It allows them to read more BH, faster, and to focus on the context and meaning of the BH text from within BH. -- -- Randall Buth, PhD www.biblicallanguagecenter.com Biblical Language Center Learn Easily - Progress Further - Remember for Life
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(Continue reading)I am not a fan of biblical "mistakes" and emendations. It appears to me that (B+Y+, עבטיט consists of AB עב 'thick', and +Y+ טיט 'matter, substance, loam', as in Is. 41:25. King James translates (B+Y+ עבטיט of Hab. 2:6 as 'thick clay', but the American Standard Version puts it as 'pledges', apparently seeing the word as an (inventive? playful?) variant of the ABO+ עבוט 'pledge, thing of substance or value' of Dt. 24:11. Isaac Fried, Boston University On Jun 1, 2011, at 1:39 AM, Pere Porta wrote: > I read Hb 2:6 and see that the last word in the verse is (B+Y+. > I know the word TXTYT, bottom (Ez 31:14) meaning *lowest, the > lowest place*. > > > I'm wondering if (B+Y+ is a mistake for (B+yT... > If not, may we speak of the suffix -Y+ (yod-teth)? > Or should we rather think of a yod plus a doubling of the last root > consonant of the basic )B+ (ayin, beth, teth)? > > Kind regards from > > > -- > Pere Porta > (Barcelona, Catalonia, Northeastern Spain) > _______________________________________________ > b-hebrew mailing list(Continue reading)
pere, the first association of a native hebrew speaker would be the reading of (B+Y+ as two words: (B and +Y+. the combination would then roughly mean: thick mud. the second association is (BW+, kind of mortgage. but then the formation with final Y+ is, at the least, odd. odd, but not unthinkable. for example, we have gb$ --> gb$w$, xr+ --> xir+w+, $gr --> $gryr, sr+ --> sir+w+, qmc --> qmcwc, zrzyf, tblwl, xr$y$, $blwl, $pryr, ($twt, xlq --> xlqyq, xmwc --> xmcyc, qrpyp, pirxax... (not all of them biblical). maybe the misterious Ch 2:6 has both in mind: a person who (accumulates property?) (drinks?) gets into mortgage which ends up weighing upon him like heavy mud. ?????? nir cohen >> De: Pere Porta <pporta7@...> Para: b-hebrew@... Data: Wed, 1 Jun 2011 07:39:34 +0200Is it a Assunto: [b-hebrew] mistake? I read Hb 2:6 and see that the last word in the verse is (B+Y+. I know the word TXTYT, bottom (Ez 31:14) meaning *lowest, the lowest place*. I'm wondering if (B+Y+ is a mistake for (B+yT...(Continue reading)
OK Now, some of the words you're provinding I'm not able to see what they are, I don't find them in any of my resources. These are: xir+w+ zrzyf ($twt What are they? Regards Pere Porta 2011/6/2 Nir cohen - Prof. Mat. <nir@...> > pere, > > the first association of a native hebrew speaker would be the reading > of (B+Y+ as two words: (B and +Y+. the combination would then roughly > mean: thick mud. > > the second association is (BW+, kind of mortgage. but then the formation > with final Y+ is, at the least, odd. odd, but not unthinkable. for example, > we have gb$ --> gb$w$, xr+ --> xir+w+, $gr --> $gryr, > sr+ --> sir+w+, qmc --> qmcwc, zrzyf, tblwl, xr$y$, > $blwl, $pryr, ($twt, xlq --> xlqyq, xmwc --> xmcyc, > qrpyp, pirxax... > (not all of them biblical). > > maybe the misterious Ch 2:6 has both in mind: a person who > (accumulates property?) (drinks?) gets into mortgage which(Continue reading)
Why Niph'al Infinitives construct have dagesh in the first root consonant? We have, for some examples, HiGaMeL, be weaned (Gn 21:8) (l)HiNaCel, (to) be delivered (Hb 2:9) (b)HiNaGeF, (in) to be smitten (1K 8:33) Look also at (k)HiMeS, (as) to melt (Ps 68:3) As we often saw, usually the dagesh shows the doubling of a consonant, so that we could say that dagesh = c + c -------- (c = consonant). But in the Niph'al Infinitives (*)... which is the function of this dagesh? What does this dagesh mean here? Is this dagesh put here to distinguish this pattern from other similar patterns? Remark: The hiriq of prefix Hi- is rendered by a yud in the unvowelized script. (*) And also in the Niph'al Infinitive absolute (look at Ex 22:3 or at Jr 25:29) and in the Niph'al Imperative (look at Gn 19:17; Is 7:4...) Regards from > -- > Pere Porta > (Barcelona, Catalonia, Northeastern Spain) > _______________________________________________(Continue reading)
A dagesh follows a xiriq, a qubuc, and a patax. Just in Gen. 21 we find וַיַּעַשׂ דִּבֵּר וַתַּהַר וַתֵּלֶד לַמּוֹעֵד הַנּוֹלַד צִוָּה בְּהִוָּלֶד מִלֵּל יָלַדְתִּי וַיִּגְדַּל וַיִּגָּמַל מִשְׁתֶּה The dagesh is redundant and superfluous and can, in my opinion, be safely ignored. The dagesg is, I think, but a vestige of an ancient, pre NIQUD, reading clues. The word VA-HA-QIM-OTY וַהֲקִמֹתִי of Gen 17:19 is interesting. There is no dagesh in the H because it is an H, there is no dagesh in the Q because it follows a xatap, but the lack of dagesh in the M calls for an explanation. In Prov. 8:24 we find HA+BAU הָטְבָּעוּ with a dagesh in the B, but I think the qamatz in the HA- is not "original". In Prov. 8:27 we find בְּחֻקוֹ חוּג עַל פְּנֵי תְהוֹם (translated by KJ as: When He drew a circle on the face of the deep) with B-XUQ-O punctuated with a qubuc, yet with no dagesh in the Q. In verse 29 we find בְּשׂוּמוֹ לַיָּם חֻקּוֹ וּמַיִם לֹא יַעַבְרוּ פִיו בְּחוּקוֹ מוֹסְדֵי אָרֶץ (translated by KJ as: When He assigned to the sea its limit. So that the waters would not transgress His command. When He marked out the foundations of the earth), with XUQ-O having a dagesh in the Q, making some people think it is "from" XQQ The second XUK-O written with a shuruq and with no dagesh in the Q, making some people think it is "from" XUQ. I think it has all to do with lost and added vowels.(Continue reading)
On Thu, 2 Jun 2011 06:13:55 +0200, Pere Porta wrote > Now, some of the words you're provinding I'm not able to see what they are, I don't find them in any of my resources. These are: pere, these words are: 1) xir+w+ : you got me, it is slang. 2) zrzyf : trickle of water, or a light rain (BH?). rarely used today. it may be connected with the semitic root *ZRB whence ZRBWBYT (BH?) is still used as a the beak of a vessel or nosy shape. 3) ($twt: appears once in the OT, in job 12:5. the whiggly mekhon mamre translation for this phrase: A contemptible brand in the thought of him that is at ease, attests to the difficulty in understanding this word and the parallel word PYD which i thought meant "disaster/calamity". anyway, it seems that ($TWT is not derived from ($T =iron. it may be candidate to your list of mistakes. see also: CYPWR --> CPRYR, GWPR-->GWFRIT-->GFRWR (asphalt (BH) --> sulphur (BH) --> match (modern)), P(L-->P(LWL (=trick (modern)) and many similar modern verbs with third root letter doubled. come to think of it, this doubling is pretty common in both regular and irregular verbs, in hebrew and probably other semitic languages. maybe also the city )$DWD and prophet XBQWQ. also DXL (Aram.(Continue reading)
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